1. роиெроп்родро▓் роиிро▓род்родро╡ро░் рокாрогро░்роХро│ை 5. ро╡ро░ро╡ேро▒்ро▒ு роЕро│ிрод்род роЙрогро╡ாроХроЪ் роЪிро▒ுрок்рокாрогாро▒்ро▒ுрок்рокроЯை роХுро▒ிрок்рокிроЯுроо் роЙрогро╡ு :
(A) родிройைроЪ் роЪோро▒ு
(B) роХுро┤ро▓் рооீрой் роХро▒ி
(C) родேройுроо் родிройைрооாро╡ுроо்
(D) роКрой் роЪோро▒ு
Answer: (C) родேройுроо் родிройைрооாро╡ுроо்
Explanation: "роЪிро▒ுрокாрогாро▒்ро▒ுрок்рокроЯை" refers to a group known for honey and millet food, which is "родேройுроо் родிройைрооாро╡ுроо்."
роХோрокро▓்ро▓рокுро░род்родு роороХ்роХро│் роОрой்ро▒ рокுродிройроо்:
(A) рокெрог் ро╡ிроЯுродро▓ைропைрок் рокிрой்ройрогிропாроХроХ் роХொрог்роЯродு.
(B) рокро┤рои்родрооிро┤ро░் рокрог்рокாроЯ்роЯிройை рооைропрооாроХроХ் роХொрог்роЯродு.
(C) ро╡ிро│ிроо்рокுроиிро▓ை роороХ்роХро│் ро╡ாро┤்ро╡ை рооைропрооாроХроХ் роХொрог்роЯродு.
(D) роЗрои்родிроп ро╡ிроЯுродро▓ைрок் рокோро░ாроЯ்роЯрод்родைрок் рокிрой்ройрогிропாроХроХ் роХொрог்роЯродு.
Answer: (B) рокро┤рои்родрооிро┤ро░் рокрог்рокாроЯ்роЯிройை рооைропрооாроХроХ் роХொрог்роЯродு
Explanation: The novel "роХோрокро▓்ро▓рокுро░род்родு роороХ்роХро│்" focuses on ancient Tamil culture.
Answer: (B) рокூро│ை рооро▓ро░்
Explanation: "рокூро│ை рооро▓ро░்" is the rare flower mentioned that is not visible to the eye (context in poetry).
Answer: (C) рокெро░ுроЩ்роХродை
Explanation: Agavarpavai is not associated with "рокெро░ுроЩ்роХродை".
Answer: (B) роЪீрод்родро▓ைроЪ் роЪாрод்родройாро░்
Explanation: The poet who describes Kovalan Kannagi story with "роЕроЯிроХро│் роиீро░ே роЕро░ுро│ுроХ" is Seethalai Sathanar.
Answer: (A) роЪெроЩ்роХுроЯ்роЯுро╡рой்
Explanation: Senguttuvan was both a king and a poet.
Answer: (B) роЙрои்родு ро╡ро│ி
Explanation: The phrase "роЙрои்родு ро╡ро│ி роХிро│ро░்рои்род роКро┤ி" metaphorically indicates "unruly factors."
Answer: (D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Explanation: Correct matching of compositions and poets as per classical Tamil literature.
Answer: (C) роЗроЯ ро╡ро┤ுро╡рооைродி
Explanation: This describes the spatial disorder, meaning "no wrong timing."
Answer: (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Explanation: Matching various terms and their classifications correctly.
Answer: (C) рокெро░ுрои்родроХை
Explanation: The word "рокெро░ுрои்родроХை" indicates the king.
Answer: (A) роХро╡ிродை роиூро▓்
Explanation: The text is a poetic collection.
Answer: (C) рокாро▓ை
Explanation: "роЗро░роЩ்роХро▓ுроо் роЗро░роЩ்роХро▓் роиிрооிрод்родрооுроо்" belong to Pala landscape (Paali).
Answer: (A) роЗро▓்ро▓род்родுро│் роиுро┤ைропுроо் ро╡ிро│роХ்роХிрой் роТро│ிроХ்роХро▒்ро▒ைрой
Explanation: Correct meaning of the phrase.
Answer: (A) роЗрои்род роороХிро┤рой் роТро░ு роиாро│ுроо் рокொроп் роХூро▒рооாроЯ்роЯாрой்
Explanation: Represents the temporal impossibility of falsehood.
Answer: (A) рооро░ுрод்родுро╡ро░் рооுрод்родுро▓ெроЯ்роЪுрооி
Explanation: The book focusing on the specific person.
Answer: (C) роХூро▒்ро▒ு (1) роЪро░ி, роХூро▒்ро▒ு (2) родро╡ро▒ு
Explanation: Statement (1) is correct, (2) is false.
Answer: (D) роХாро▓ை 6 роорогி рооுродро▓் 10 роорогி ро╡ро░ை
Explanation: Definition of ‘роОро▒்рокாроЯு’.
Answer: (D) родோроХை
Explanation: This does not refer to the leaf.
Answer: (B) ро╡ாроХைрод் родிрогை
Explanation: About virtue, knowledge, and grace.
Answer: (D) рооுродிро░ை
Explanation: Refers to the given trees.
Answer: (B) роЪெроо்рооொро┤ி рооாроиாроЯ்роЯு ро╡ிро┤ா
Explanation: The title 'роХро▓ைроЮро░்' was awarded during Classical Language Conference.
Answer: (A) рокாро░родிропாро░்
Explanation: Bharathiyar advocated education rights for women.
Answer: (A) роЪீро╡роХроЪிрои்родாроорогி
Explanation: The northern dialect story compilation.
Answer: (B) роироЯро╡ாрооை
Explanation: Negative verbal noun indicating non-action.
Answer: (D) родிро░ுро╡ро│்ро│ுро╡ро░்
Explanation: Author of the phrase ‘ро╡ிро░ுрои்родே рокுродுрооை’.
Answer: (A) роХூро▒்ро▒ு (1), (2) роЗро░рог்роЯுроо் роЪро░ி
Explanation: Both statements regarding teacher and social structure are true.
Answer: (C) ро╡ேроЩ்роХை
Explanation: General Tamil word meaning ‘flower’.
Answer: (C) роЕроо்рокேрод்роХро░்
Explanation: Ambedkar led the campaign for temple entry.
Answer: (D) родிро░ுроХ்роХுро▒ро│் рооெроп்рок்рокொро░ுро│ுро░ை
Explanation: The book considered a repository of Tamil language.
31. Answer: A (Dual space)
Explanation: In Hilbert space theory, orthogonality identifies the Hilbert space with its dual, the space of continuous linear functionals.
32. Answer: C
Explanation: The linear transformation maps the given vectors to the specified images following basis transformation properties.
33. Answer: D (supremum definition)
Explanation: The supremum of inner products defines the norm.
34. Answer: B (No feasible solution)
Explanation: Presence of artificial variable in non-zero level and non-negative M coefficient indicates infeasibility in LPP.
35. Answer: B (kg - G72 / FG2GG1 - 2GF2)
Explanation: The formula gives geodesic curvature; related to parametric curve derivatives.
36. Answer: B (Connected Space)
Explanation: Cartesian product of connected topological spaces remains connected.
37. Answer: B (lim fnxdx = 1 false)
Explanation: Pointwise limit does not equal integral of limit function.
38. Answer: A (Given matrix for basis inner product)
Explanation: Matrix elements calculated via dot products of basis vectors.
39. Answer: A (Harmonic oscillator)
Explanation: Given Lagrangian corresponds to harmonic oscillator motion equations.
40. Answer: B (Countable dense subset)
Explanation: Separability means existence of countable dense subset.
41. Answer: B (Maximal network flow)
Explanation: Minimal cut capacity equals maximal flow by Ford-Fulkerson theorem.
42. Answer: B (Characteristic roots are real)
Explanation: Hermitian operators have real eigenvalues.
43. Answer: A (sin z, cos z, e^z)
Explanation: Maclaurin expansions of sine, cosine, and exponential functions.
44. Answer: B (Pw = 1 - ╬╗╬╝)
Explanation: Probability of waiting is 1 minus traffic intensity in MG1 queue.
45. Answer: A (O(h^2))
Explanation: Trapezoidal rule error is proportional to the square of step size.
46. Answer: A (Best estimate formula for derivatives in analytic function)
Explanation: Derived through Taylor series terms.
47. Answer: A
Explanation: Using exponential distribution cumulative formula.
48. Answer: A (Fundamental magnitude Hu c)
Explanation: Calculated from surface parameterization.
49. Answer: B (Elliptic equation)
Explanation: PDE classification based on discriminant.
50. Answer: C (25 seconds)
Explanation: Wait time calculated using queueing theory.
51. Answer: B (Uniform convergence)
Explanation: Sequence converges uniformly to limit function.
52. Answer: A (Differentiation operator matrix)
Explanation: Matrix representation of differentiation operator in polynomial basis.
53. Answer: A (E[X-C] minimized when C=E[X])
Explanation: Expected squared deviation minimized at mean.
54. Answer: A (Jacobian equals absolute value of f’(z))
Explanation: From Cauchy-Riemann equations in complex analysis.
55. Answer: B (Function has saddle point if gradient zero and Hessian indefinite)
Explanation: Necessary conditions for saddle points.
56. Answer: D (Probability formula in M/M/1 queue for n customers)
Explanation: Geometric distribution of customers.
57. Answer: C (Mode less than 2)
Explanation: Mode properties of F-distribution.
58. Answer: C (Indicatrix of tangent vector formula)
Explanation: Derived from helix parametric equations.
59. Answer: B (Variance estimate ratio)
Explanation: Derived from ANOVA table.
60. Answer: A (Matrix representation given)
Explanation: Standard basis transformation matrix.
61. Answer: A (I, III true; II false)
Explanation: For bounded self-adjoint operators A, B, AB is self-adjoint if A and B commute.
62. Answer: B (t = 1)
Explanation: Calculation of t-value using formula for sample mean difference.
63. Answer: C
Explanation: Topological divisor of zero definition involves sequence properties tending to zero norms.
64. Answer: A
Explanation: Hahn-Banach theorem guarantees separation of non-empty compact sets by hyperplanes.
65. Answer: B
Explanation: Differentiability class at origin based on piecewise definition.
66. Answer: D (Hamiltonian: kinetic + potential energy)
Explanation: $$ H = \frac{p^2}{2m} + \frac{1}{2}kq^2 $$ for simple harmonic motion.
67. Answer: A
Explanation: General solution to the given ODE uses method of undetermined coefficients.
68. Answer: C
Explanation: Geodesic curve condition on general parametric surfaces.
69. Answer: B (Number of basic variables equals number of unknowns n)
Explanation: Consistent linear systems' variables.
70. Answer: A (Coefficient of artificial variable = M)
Explanation: Penalty method in LPP uses large positive M for artificial variables.
71. Answer: A
Explanation: Maximum and minimum values occur at specified vertices.
72. Answer: D
Explanation: Principal normals intersect only under certain curvature conditions.
73. Answer: D
Explanation: Radical R equals intersection of all maximal left, right ideals and regular elements.
74. Answer: B
Explanation: At umbilic points, principal directions are indeterminate but curvature uniform.
75. Answer: D
Explanation: Variance formula for binomial distribution.
76. Answer: B
Explanation: Temperature distribution in steady-state rod.
77. Answer: B
Explanation: Adjoint operator properties.
78. Answer: C
Explanation: Standard 2D wave equation form.
79. Answer: D
Explanation: Branch and Bound involves enumeration, branching and bounding.
80. Answer: B (Principle of Least Action)
Explanation: Hamilton's principle is fundamental variational principle of mechanics.
81. Answer: C
Explanation: Convergence of power series depends on radius of convergence.
82. Answer: C
Explanation: Boolean ring satisfies certain idempotent properties.
83. Answer: A
Explanation: Solution for given PDE by standard methods.
84. Answer: A
Explanation: Definition of canonical transformation.
85. Answer: B
Explanation: Solution conditions for congruences mod prime P=4n+1.
86. Answer: C
Explanation: Integral of cosine powers.
87. Answer: D
Explanation: Projection operators satisfy $$ P = P^2 $$ and self-adjointness conditions.
88. Answer: C
Explanation: Cauchy's integral formula with index.
89. Answer: A
Explanation: Definition of distribution function of random variable.
90. Answer: C
Explanation: Formula for angle between directions using first fundamental form.
91. Answer: C (45/2)
Explanation: Residue of cotangent function at z=0 is computed using standard residue theorem for poles of trigonometric functions.
92. Answer: A (Uniform convergence to $$f(z) = 1$$)
Explanation: For each fixed $$z$$, the series converges uniformly to 1 on the unit disk.
93. Answer: B (Average number of customers in MM1 system is $$\frac{\lambda}{\mu - \lambda}$$)
Explanation: Basic queueing formula for average number of customers in system.
94. Answer: B (One parameter family of planes)
Explanation: Developables are enveloped by one parameter family of planes.
95. Answer: C (Both null space and range space closed)
Explanation: Closed projection operators must have closed null and range spaces.
96. Answer: B (Open interval containing 1 in Y is open in Y)
Explanation: Open sets in subspace topology.
97. Answer: A (False: inverse image of closed set is not always closed)
Explanation: Continuity does not guarantee closed set inverse.
98. Answer: A (Linear transformation)
Explanation: Multiplicative constant relates to linear canonical transformation.
99. Answer: D ($$xy$$)
Explanation: Particular integral matching nonhomogeneous term.
100. Answer: A (Cauchy Integral Formula bound)
Explanation: Maximum modulus principle bounding derivatives.
101. Answer: A (Catenoid)
Explanation: Helicoid and catenoid are isometric minimal surfaces.
102. Answer: D (3 and 4 are true: Orthogonal complement is closed linear subspace and contains the original set's complement)
Explanation: Properties of orthogonal complements in Hilbert space.
103. Answer: B (Standard topology)
Explanation: Intervals form basis for standard Euclidean topology.
104. Answer: D (Orbit of 1 is {1,2,3})
Explanation: Orbit defined by permutation cycle.
105. Answer: C (uv constant curves are geodesics on the given metric)
Explanation: Based on Finsler metric and geodesic curve definition.
106. Answer: C (V > 4)
Explanation: Inflection points of F-distribution occur for degrees of freedom > 4.
107. Answer: C (1 - i)
Explanation: Greatest common divisor in Gaussian integers computed using norms.
108. Answer: D (Continuous on $$C_0$$)
Explanation: Function continuity restricted on complex plane excluding zeros.
109. Answer: D (Cauchy distribution)
Explanation: Student t-distribution with 1 degree of freedom is Cauchy distribution.
110. Answer: A (Given probability formula for MM1 system customers count)
Explanation: Geometric pmf for number in system.
111. Answer: B (General solution involving arbitrary functions)
Explanation: Method for solving PDEs of given form.
112. Answer: A (Converges to 0 almost surely)
Explanation: Mean square convergence implies convergence in probability.
113. Answer: A (Average wait time is 5 minutes calculated from arrival and service rates.)
Explanation: Queueing theory (M/M/1) waiting time formula.
114. Answer: B (Approximate formula from Lagrange's interpolation)
Explanation: Using piecewise polynomial interpolation.
115. Answer: D (Limit is 1)
Explanation: Calculus limit formula for given sequence.
116. Answer: A (False: Existence of Cauchy sequence not converging violates completeness)
Explanation: Metric subspace completeness.
117. Answer: C (Finite sets in Hausdorff spaces are closed)
Explanation: Hausdorff separation axiom properties.
118. Answer: B (Closure of set $$A$$ is $$A \cup \{0\}$$)
Explanation: Based on limit points in subspace topology.
119. Answer: A (Matrix representation of given quadratic form)
Explanation: Coefficients arranged in symmetric matrix.
120. Answer: B (Variance of $$X - 2Y$$ is 14 assuming independence)
Explanation: Variance computed using independence and variance properties.
121. Answer: A
Explanation: The probability density function for time spent in system in M/M/1 queue is an exponential distribution with parameter ╬╝ - ╬╗.
122. Answer: A (Connected)
Explanation: Union of connected subspaces sharing a point remains connected.
123. Answer: A (da = d1)
Explanation: An element a in an Euclidean ring is a unit if its divisor a has norm 1.
124. Answer: C
Explanation: Limit superior and limit inferior for specific sequences.
125. Answer: B (fz = $$z^{-2} e^z$$)
Explanation: This function has a singularity and is not entire.
126. Answer: D
Explanation: Payoff function is maximized over the subdivision.
127. Answer: D (Both 11-sylow and 13-sylow subgroups are normal in G)
Explanation: Normality derived from Sylow theorems and group order.
128. Answer: B (Variation of line integral is zero)
Explanation: Hamilton's principle states that the variation of action integral is zero.
129. Answer: A (R = $$k^{-2}$$)
Explanation: Radius of spherical curvature reciprocal to square of curvature.
130. Answer: A
Explanation: Solution derived by integrating and applying boundary conditions.
131. Answer: C (Only ii)
Explanation: The set of all sequences with terms 0 and 1 is uncountable.
132. Answer: D
Explanation: Poisson distribution properties and formulas.
133. Answer: B ($$O(h)$$)
Explanation: Euler's method has global truncation error of order h.
134. Answer: B
Explanation: For analytic $$f$$, the difference quotient tends to derivative.
135. Answer: C
Explanation: Derivative of integral function follows from fundamental theorem of calculus.
136. Answer: B (Both i and iv)
Explanation: Function not uniformly continuous on given set but is so on whole real line.
137. Answer: A
Explanation: Dimension formula for cyclic subspace under linear operator.
138. Answer: C (Separable space)
Explanation: Space with countable dense subset is separable.
139. Answer: B
Explanation: Probability assignment given intersection axioms.
140. Answer: A
Explanation: Expected number in non-empty queue formula for M/M/1.
141. Answer: A (W.B. Ragan)
Explanation: Quote about educational responsibility by W.B. Ragan.
142. Answer: D (J. Krishnamurti)
Explanation: Emphasized education as creative process beyond bookish learning.
143. Answer: B (2008)
Explanation: FICCI summit report year.
144. Answer: A (1948)
Explanation: Year of publication for Tyler's curriculum model.
145. Answer: A (Five)
Explanation: Number of free open online courses offered by Stanford.
146. Answer: B (National Plan of Action)
Explanation: Dakar output linked to National Plan of Action for EFA.
147. Answer: A (Yellow Bile)
Explanation: Galen's four bodily fluids associate personality with bile.
148. Answer: C (Legally blind)
Explanation: Vision less than 20/200 categorized as legally blind.
149. Answer: C (Reduced oxygen level)
Explanation: Effect of alcohol on fetal development.
150. Answer: D (Acharyan)
Explanation: Sangam era Tamil term for teacher.
151. Answer: A (Educational Measurement)
Explanation: Comparing unknown to known quantities expressed in numerical units is educational measurement.
152. Answer: D (UNESCO)
Explanation: UNESCO coined the term "Open Educational Resources."
153. Answer: C (Sornammal-Madurai)
Explanation: She was a lady freedom fighter who started Gandhi Seva Sangam at Burma.
154. Answer: A (Erik Erikson)
Explanation: He proposed personality development through eight life stages.
155. Answer: B (Spearman)
Explanation: Main proponent of multifactor theory of intelligence.
156. Answer: A (Michael Schiro)
Explanation: Propounded problem-centered design in curriculum.
157. Answer: A (Physical)
Explanation: Metaphysics studies what lies beyond the visible physical world.
158. Answer: C (Teacher-centeredness)
Explanation: Not a principle of curriculum development, which emphasizes learner-centeredness.
159. Answer: A (ASSOCHAM)
Explanation: Survey on parental spending was done under ASSOCHAM.
160. Answer: C (Sustained Attention)
Explanation: Concentrated mental activity continuously on an object/problem.
161. Answer: C (Qualitative tool)
Explanation: Common tool in observation, projection, interview, and rating scales.
162. Answer: B (Peter Drucker)
Explanation: Observed institutional planning as both challenge and opportunity.
163. Answer: D (Incremental)
Explanation: Thorndike termed improved performance with practice as Incremental learning.
164. Answer: B (Measurement Test)
Explanation: Test intended to measure computational skills is a measurement test.
165. Answer: B (Sekkilar)
Explanation: Author of Jivakasintamani.
166. Answer: C (Deductive approach)
Explanation: Armstrong used deductive approach in teaching.
167. Answer: D (Principles of practice)
Explanation: Teacher accountability linked to principles of practice.
168. Answer: D (Guilford)
Explanation: Guilford defined reliability as proportion of true variance in scores.
169. Answer: C (UNESCO)
Explanation: Dedicated to spreading international understanding through education.
170. Answer: A (Grid)
Explanation: Grid theory helps determine leadership and management style.
171. Answer: C (HRLV)
Explanation: HRLV is not commonly used vehicle to launch space missions.
172. Answer: A (SWAYAM)
Explanation: SWAYAM portal facilitates online courses from class 9 to postgraduate.
173. Answer: B (Phyletic gradualism: species change slowly and continuously)
Explanation: Evolutionary theory of gradual change over long periods.
174. Answer: B (3 years)
Explanation: Compound interest formula shows 1000 becomes 1331 in 3 years at 10%.
175. Answer: A (150)
Explanation: Sum of series 1 to 100 is 5050, this question likely involves similar arithmetic sums.
176. Answer: A (International Atomic Energy Agency)
Explanation: IAEA stands for International Atomic Energy Agency.
177. Answer: C (Martimer Wheeler)
Explanation: Conducted excavations at Arikkamedu.
178. Answer: B (Part IV)
Explanation: Directive Principles of State Policy are in Part IV of the Indian Constitution.
179. Answer: C (Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana)
Explanation: Scheme to develop model villages in India.
180. Answer: A (Lovely Professional University, Punjab)
Explanation: Awarded MAKA Trophy 2024 for overall winner.
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