Sunday, October 12, 2025

pgtrb 12.10.2025 answers with explanation A series

the answers with explanations for the PGTRB question paper:
1. роиெроп்родро▓் роиிро▓род்родро╡ро░் рокாрогро░்роХро│ை 5. ро╡ро░ро╡ேро▒்ро▒ு роЕро│ிрод்род роЙрогро╡ாроХроЪ் роЪிро▒ுрок்рокாрогாро▒்ро▒ுрок்рокроЯை роХுро▒ிрок்рокிроЯுроо் роЙрогро╡ு :
(A) родிройைроЪ் роЪோро▒ு
(B) роХுро┤ро▓் рооீрой் роХро▒ி
(C) родேройுроо் родிройைрооாро╡ுроо்
(D) роКрой் роЪோро▒ு
Answer: (C) родேройுроо் родிройைрооாро╡ுроо்
Explanation: "роЪிро▒ுрокாрогாро▒்ро▒ுрок்рокроЯை" refers to a group known for honey and millet food, which is "родேройுроо் родிройைрооாро╡ுроо்."

роХோрокро▓்ро▓рокுро░род்родு роороХ்роХро│் роОрой்ро▒ рокுродிройроо்:
(A) рокெрог் ро╡ிроЯுродро▓ைропைрок் рокிрой்ройрогிропாроХроХ் роХொрог்роЯродு.
(B) рокро┤рои்родрооிро┤ро░் рокрог்рокாроЯ்роЯிройை рооைропрооாроХроХ் роХொрог்роЯродு.
(C) ро╡ிро│ிроо்рокுроиிро▓ை роороХ்роХро│் ро╡ாро┤்ро╡ை рооைропрооாроХроХ் роХொрог்роЯродு.
(D) роЗрои்родிроп ро╡ிроЯுродро▓ைрок் рокோро░ாроЯ்роЯрод்родைрок் рокிрой்ройрогிропாроХроХ் роХொрог்роЯродு.

Answer: (B) рокро┤рои்родрооிро┤ро░் рокрог்рокாроЯ்роЯிройை рооைропрооாроХроХ் роХொрог்роЯродு
Explanation: The novel "роХோрокро▓்ро▓рокுро░род்родு роороХ்роХро│்" focuses on ancient Tamil culture.

Answer: (B) рокூро│ை рооро▓ро░்
Explanation: "рокூро│ை рооро▓ро░்" is the rare flower mentioned that is not visible to the eye (context in poetry).


Answer: (C) рокெро░ுроЩ்роХродை
Explanation: Agavarpavai is not associated with "рокெро░ுроЩ்роХродை".

Answer: (B) роЪீрод்родро▓ைроЪ் роЪாрод்родройாро░்
Explanation: The poet who describes Kovalan Kannagi story with "роЕроЯிроХро│் роиீро░ே роЕро░ுро│ுроХ" is Seethalai Sathanar.

Answer: (A) роЪெроЩ்роХுроЯ்роЯுро╡рой்
Explanation: Senguttuvan was both a king and a poet.

Answer: (B) роЙрои்родு ро╡ро│ி
Explanation: The phrase "роЙрои்родு ро╡ро│ி роХிро│ро░்рои்род роКро┤ி" metaphorically indicates "unruly factors."

Answer: (D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Explanation: Correct matching of compositions and poets as per classical Tamil literature.

Answer: (C) роЗроЯ ро╡ро┤ுро╡рооைродி
Explanation: This describes the spatial disorder, meaning "no wrong timing."

Answer: (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Explanation: Matching various terms and their classifications correctly.

Answer: (C) рокெро░ுрои்родроХை
Explanation: The word "рокெро░ுрои்родроХை" indicates the king.

Answer: (A) роХро╡ிродை роиூро▓்
Explanation: The text is a poetic collection.

Answer: (C) рокாро▓ை
Explanation: "роЗро░роЩ்роХро▓ுроо் роЗро░роЩ்роХро▓் роиிрооிрод்родрооுроо்" belong to Pala landscape (Paali).

Answer: (A) роЗро▓்ро▓род்родுро│் роиுро┤ைропுроо் ро╡ிро│роХ்роХிрой் роТро│ிроХ்роХро▒்ро▒ைрой
Explanation: Correct meaning of the phrase.

Answer: (A) роЗрои்род роороХிро┤рой் роТро░ு роиாро│ுроо் рокொроп் роХூро▒рооாроЯ்роЯாрой்
Explanation: Represents the temporal impossibility of falsehood.

Answer: (A) рооро░ுрод்родுро╡ро░் рооுрод்родுро▓ெроЯ்роЪுрооி
Explanation: The book focusing on the specific person.

Answer: (C) роХூро▒்ро▒ு (1) роЪро░ி, роХூро▒்ро▒ு (2) родро╡ро▒ு
Explanation: Statement (1) is correct, (2) is false.

Answer: (D) роХாро▓ை 6 роорогி рооுродро▓் 10 роорогி ро╡ро░ை
Explanation: Definition of ‘роОро▒்рокாроЯு’.

Answer: (D) родோроХை
Explanation: This does not refer to the leaf.

Answer: (B) ро╡ாроХைрод் родிрогை
Explanation: About virtue, knowledge, and grace.

Answer: (D) рооுродிро░ை
Explanation: Refers to the given trees.

Answer: (B) роЪெроо்рооொро┤ி рооாроиாроЯ்роЯு ро╡ிро┤ா
Explanation: The title 'роХро▓ைроЮро░்' was awarded during Classical Language Conference.

Answer: (A) рокாро░родிропாро░்
Explanation: Bharathiyar advocated education rights for women.

Answer: (A) роЪீро╡роХроЪிрои்родாроорогி
Explanation: The northern dialect story compilation.

Answer: (B) роироЯро╡ாрооை
Explanation: Negative verbal noun indicating non-action.

Answer: (D) родிро░ுро╡ро│்ро│ுро╡ро░்
Explanation: Author of the phrase ‘ро╡ிро░ுрои்родே рокுродுрооை’.

Answer: (A) роХூро▒்ро▒ு (1), (2) роЗро░рог்роЯுроо் роЪро░ி
Explanation: Both statements regarding teacher and social structure are true.

Answer: (C) ро╡ேроЩ்роХை
Explanation: General Tamil word meaning ‘flower’.

Answer: (C) роЕроо்рокேрод்роХро░்
Explanation: Ambedkar led the campaign for temple entry.

Answer: (D) родிро░ுроХ்роХுро▒ро│் рооெроп்рок்рокொро░ுро│ுро░ை
Explanation: The book considered a repository of Tamil language.

31. Answer: A (Dual space)  
Explanation: In Hilbert space theory, orthogonality identifies the Hilbert space with its dual, the space of continuous linear functionals.

32. Answer: C  
Explanation: The linear transformation maps the given vectors to the specified images following basis transformation properties.

33. Answer: D (supremum definition)  
Explanation: The supremum of inner products defines the norm.

34. Answer: B (No feasible solution)  
Explanation: Presence of artificial variable in non-zero level and non-negative M coefficient indicates infeasibility in LPP.

35. Answer: B (kg - G72 / FG2GG1 - 2GF2)  
Explanation: The formula gives geodesic curvature; related to parametric curve derivatives.

36. Answer: B (Connected Space)  
Explanation: Cartesian product of connected topological spaces remains connected.

37. Answer: B (lim fnxdx = 1 false)  
Explanation: Pointwise limit does not equal integral of limit function.

38. Answer: A (Given matrix for basis inner product)  
Explanation: Matrix elements calculated via dot products of basis vectors.

39. Answer: A (Harmonic oscillator)  
Explanation: Given Lagrangian corresponds to harmonic oscillator motion equations.

40. Answer: B (Countable dense subset)  
Explanation: Separability means existence of countable dense subset.

41. Answer: B (Maximal network flow)  
Explanation: Minimal cut capacity equals maximal flow by Ford-Fulkerson theorem.

42. Answer: B (Characteristic roots are real)  
Explanation: Hermitian operators have real eigenvalues.

43. Answer: A (sin z, cos z, e^z)  
Explanation: Maclaurin expansions of sine, cosine, and exponential functions.

44. Answer: B (Pw = 1 - ╬╗╬╝)  
Explanation: Probability of waiting is 1 minus traffic intensity in MG1 queue.

45. Answer: A (O(h^2))  
Explanation: Trapezoidal rule error is proportional to the square of step size.

46. Answer: A (Best estimate formula for derivatives in analytic function)  
Explanation: Derived through Taylor series terms.

47. Answer: A  
Explanation: Using exponential distribution cumulative formula.

48. Answer: A (Fundamental magnitude Hu c)  
Explanation: Calculated from surface parameterization.

49. Answer: B (Elliptic equation)  
Explanation: PDE classification based on discriminant.

50. Answer: C (25 seconds)  
Explanation: Wait time calculated using queueing theory.

51. Answer: B (Uniform convergence)  
Explanation: Sequence converges uniformly to limit function.

52. Answer: A (Differentiation operator matrix)  
Explanation: Matrix representation of differentiation operator in polynomial basis.

53. Answer: A (E[X-C] minimized when C=E[X])  
Explanation: Expected squared deviation minimized at mean.

54. Answer: A (Jacobian equals absolute value of f’(z))  
Explanation: From Cauchy-Riemann equations in complex analysis.

55. Answer: B (Function has saddle point if gradient zero and Hessian indefinite)  
Explanation: Necessary conditions for saddle points.

56. Answer: D (Probability formula in M/M/1 queue for n customers)  
Explanation: Geometric distribution of customers.

57. Answer: C (Mode less than 2)  
Explanation: Mode properties of F-distribution.

58. Answer: C (Indicatrix of tangent vector formula)  
Explanation: Derived from helix parametric equations.

59. Answer: B (Variance estimate ratio)  
Explanation: Derived from ANOVA table.

60. Answer: A (Matrix representation given)  
Explanation: Standard basis transformation matrix.


61. Answer: A (I, III true; II false)  
Explanation: For bounded self-adjoint operators A, B, AB is self-adjoint if A and B commute.

62. Answer: B (t = 1)  
Explanation: Calculation of t-value using formula for sample mean difference.

63. Answer: C  
Explanation: Topological divisor of zero definition involves sequence properties tending to zero norms.

64. Answer: A  
Explanation: Hahn-Banach theorem guarantees separation of non-empty compact sets by hyperplanes.

65. Answer: B  
Explanation: Differentiability class at origin based on piecewise definition.

66. Answer: D (Hamiltonian: kinetic + potential energy)  
Explanation: $$ H = \frac{p^2}{2m} + \frac{1}{2}kq^2 $$ for simple harmonic motion.

67. Answer: A  
Explanation: General solution to the given ODE uses method of undetermined coefficients.

68. Answer: C  
Explanation: Geodesic curve condition on general parametric surfaces.

69. Answer: B (Number of basic variables equals number of unknowns n)  
Explanation: Consistent linear systems' variables.

70. Answer: A (Coefficient of artificial variable = M)  
Explanation: Penalty method in LPP uses large positive M for artificial variables.

71. Answer: A  
Explanation: Maximum and minimum values occur at specified vertices.

72. Answer: D  
Explanation: Principal normals intersect only under certain curvature conditions.

73. Answer: D  
Explanation: Radical R equals intersection of all maximal left, right ideals and regular elements.

74. Answer: B  
Explanation: At umbilic points, principal directions are indeterminate but curvature uniform.

75. Answer: D  
Explanation: Variance formula for binomial distribution.

76. Answer: B  
Explanation: Temperature distribution in steady-state rod.

77. Answer: B  
Explanation: Adjoint operator properties.

78. Answer: C  
Explanation: Standard 2D wave equation form.

79. Answer: D  
Explanation: Branch and Bound involves enumeration, branching and bounding.

80. Answer: B (Principle of Least Action)  
Explanation: Hamilton's principle is fundamental variational principle of mechanics.

81. Answer: C  
Explanation: Convergence of power series depends on radius of convergence.

82. Answer: C  
Explanation: Boolean ring satisfies certain idempotent properties.

83. Answer: A  
Explanation: Solution for given PDE by standard methods.

84. Answer: A  
Explanation: Definition of canonical transformation.

85. Answer: B  
Explanation: Solution conditions for congruences mod prime P=4n+1.

86. Answer: C  
Explanation: Integral of cosine powers.

87. Answer: D  
Explanation: Projection operators satisfy $$ P = P^2 $$ and self-adjointness conditions.

88. Answer: C  
Explanation: Cauchy's integral formula with index.

89. Answer: A  
Explanation: Definition of distribution function of random variable.

90. Answer: C  
Explanation: Formula for angle between directions using first fundamental form.


91. Answer: C (45/2)  
Explanation: Residue of cotangent function at z=0 is computed using standard residue theorem for poles of trigonometric functions.

92. Answer: A (Uniform convergence to $$f(z) = 1$$)  
Explanation: For each fixed $$z$$, the series converges uniformly to 1 on the unit disk.

93. Answer: B (Average number of customers in MM1 system is $$\frac{\lambda}{\mu - \lambda}$$)  
Explanation: Basic queueing formula for average number of customers in system.

94. Answer: B (One parameter family of planes)  
Explanation: Developables are enveloped by one parameter family of planes.

95. Answer: C (Both null space and range space closed)  
Explanation: Closed projection operators must have closed null and range spaces.

96. Answer: B (Open interval containing 1 in Y is open in Y)  
Explanation: Open sets in subspace topology.

97. Answer: A (False: inverse image of closed set is not always closed)  
Explanation: Continuity does not guarantee closed set inverse.

98. Answer: A (Linear transformation)  
Explanation: Multiplicative constant relates to linear canonical transformation.

99. Answer: D ($$xy$$)  
Explanation: Particular integral matching nonhomogeneous term.

100. Answer: A (Cauchy Integral Formula bound)  
Explanation: Maximum modulus principle bounding derivatives.

101. Answer: A (Catenoid)  
Explanation: Helicoid and catenoid are isometric minimal surfaces.

102. Answer: D (3 and 4 are true: Orthogonal complement is closed linear subspace and contains the original set's complement)  
Explanation: Properties of orthogonal complements in Hilbert space.

103. Answer: B (Standard topology)  
Explanation: Intervals form basis for standard Euclidean topology.

104. Answer: D (Orbit of 1 is {1,2,3})  
Explanation: Orbit defined by permutation cycle.

105. Answer: C (uv constant curves are geodesics on the given metric)  
Explanation: Based on Finsler metric and geodesic curve definition.

106. Answer: C (V > 4)  
Explanation: Inflection points of F-distribution occur for degrees of freedom > 4.

107. Answer: C (1 - i)  
Explanation: Greatest common divisor in Gaussian integers computed using norms.

108. Answer: D (Continuous on $$C_0$$)  
Explanation: Function continuity restricted on complex plane excluding zeros.

109. Answer: D (Cauchy distribution)  
Explanation: Student t-distribution with 1 degree of freedom is Cauchy distribution.

110. Answer: A (Given probability formula for MM1 system customers count)  
Explanation: Geometric pmf for number in system.

111. Answer: B (General solution involving arbitrary functions)  
Explanation: Method for solving PDEs of given form.

112. Answer: A (Converges to 0 almost surely)  
Explanation: Mean square convergence implies convergence in probability.

113. Answer: A (Average wait time is 5 minutes calculated from arrival and service rates.)  
Explanation: Queueing theory (M/M/1) waiting time formula.

114. Answer: B (Approximate formula from Lagrange's interpolation)  
Explanation: Using piecewise polynomial interpolation.

115. Answer: D (Limit is 1)  
Explanation: Calculus limit formula for given sequence.

116. Answer: A (False: Existence of Cauchy sequence not converging violates completeness)  
Explanation: Metric subspace completeness.

117. Answer: C (Finite sets in Hausdorff spaces are closed)  
Explanation: Hausdorff separation axiom properties.

118. Answer: B (Closure of set $$A$$ is $$A \cup \{0\}$$)  
Explanation: Based on limit points in subspace topology.

119. Answer: A (Matrix representation of given quadratic form)  
Explanation: Coefficients arranged in symmetric matrix.

120. Answer: B (Variance of $$X - 2Y$$ is 14 assuming independence)  
Explanation: Variance computed using independence and variance properties.


121. Answer: A  
Explanation: The probability density function for time spent in system in M/M/1 queue is an exponential distribution with parameter ╬╝ - ╬╗.

122. Answer: A (Connected)  
Explanation: Union of connected subspaces sharing a point remains connected.

123. Answer: A (da = d1)  
Explanation: An element a in an Euclidean ring is a unit if its divisor a has norm 1.

124. Answer: C  
Explanation: Limit superior and limit inferior for specific sequences.

125. Answer: B (fz = $$z^{-2} e^z$$)  
Explanation: This function has a singularity and is not entire.

126. Answer: D  
Explanation: Payoff function is maximized over the subdivision.

127. Answer: D (Both 11-sylow and 13-sylow subgroups are normal in G)  
Explanation: Normality derived from Sylow theorems and group order.

128. Answer: B (Variation of line integral is zero)  
Explanation: Hamilton's principle states that the variation of action integral is zero.

129. Answer: A (R = $$k^{-2}$$)  
Explanation: Radius of spherical curvature reciprocal to square of curvature.

130. Answer: A  
Explanation: Solution derived by integrating and applying boundary conditions.

131. Answer: C (Only ii)  
Explanation: The set of all sequences with terms 0 and 1 is uncountable.

132. Answer: D  
Explanation: Poisson distribution properties and formulas.

133. Answer: B ($$O(h)$$)  
Explanation: Euler's method has global truncation error of order h.

134. Answer: B  
Explanation: For analytic $$f$$, the difference quotient tends to derivative.

135. Answer: C  
Explanation: Derivative of integral function follows from fundamental theorem of calculus.

136. Answer: B (Both i and iv)  
Explanation: Function not uniformly continuous on given set but is so on whole real line.

137. Answer: A  
Explanation: Dimension formula for cyclic subspace under linear operator.

138. Answer: C (Separable space)  
Explanation: Space with countable dense subset is separable.

139. Answer: B  
Explanation: Probability assignment given intersection axioms.

140. Answer: A  
Explanation: Expected number in non-empty queue formula for M/M/1.

141. Answer: A (W.B. Ragan)  
Explanation: Quote about educational responsibility by W.B. Ragan.

142. Answer: D (J. Krishnamurti)  
Explanation: Emphasized education as creative process beyond bookish learning.

143. Answer: B (2008)  
Explanation: FICCI summit report year.

144. Answer: A (1948)  
Explanation: Year of publication for Tyler's curriculum model.

145. Answer: A (Five)  
Explanation: Number of free open online courses offered by Stanford.

146. Answer: B (National Plan of Action)  
Explanation: Dakar output linked to National Plan of Action for EFA.

147. Answer: A (Yellow Bile)  
Explanation: Galen's four bodily fluids associate personality with bile.

148. Answer: C (Legally blind)  
Explanation: Vision less than 20/200 categorized as legally blind.

149. Answer: C (Reduced oxygen level)  
Explanation: Effect of alcohol on fetal development.

150. Answer: D (Acharyan)  
Explanation: Sangam era Tamil term for teacher.


151. Answer: A (Educational Measurement)  
Explanation: Comparing unknown to known quantities expressed in numerical units is educational measurement.

152. Answer: D (UNESCO)  
Explanation: UNESCO coined the term "Open Educational Resources."

153. Answer: C (Sornammal-Madurai)  
Explanation: She was a lady freedom fighter who started Gandhi Seva Sangam at Burma.

154. Answer: A (Erik Erikson)  
Explanation: He proposed personality development through eight life stages.

155. Answer: B (Spearman)  
Explanation: Main proponent of multifactor theory of intelligence.

156. Answer: A (Michael Schiro)  
Explanation: Propounded problem-centered design in curriculum.

157. Answer: A (Physical)  
Explanation: Metaphysics studies what lies beyond the visible physical world.

158. Answer: C (Teacher-centeredness)  
Explanation: Not a principle of curriculum development, which emphasizes learner-centeredness.

159. Answer: A (ASSOCHAM)  
Explanation: Survey on parental spending was done under ASSOCHAM.

160. Answer: C (Sustained Attention)  
Explanation: Concentrated mental activity continuously on an object/problem.

161. Answer: C (Qualitative tool)  
Explanation: Common tool in observation, projection, interview, and rating scales.

162. Answer: B (Peter Drucker)  
Explanation: Observed institutional planning as both challenge and opportunity.

163. Answer: D (Incremental)  
Explanation: Thorndike termed improved performance with practice as Incremental learning.

164. Answer: B (Measurement Test)  
Explanation: Test intended to measure computational skills is a measurement test.

165. Answer: B (Sekkilar)  
Explanation: Author of Jivakasintamani.

166. Answer: C (Deductive approach)  
Explanation: Armstrong used deductive approach in teaching.

167. Answer: D (Principles of practice)  
Explanation: Teacher accountability linked to principles of practice.

168. Answer: D (Guilford)  
Explanation: Guilford defined reliability as proportion of true variance in scores.

169. Answer: C (UNESCO)  
Explanation: Dedicated to spreading international understanding through education.

170. Answer: A (Grid)  
Explanation: Grid theory helps determine leadership and management style.

171. Answer: C (HRLV)  
Explanation: HRLV is not commonly used vehicle to launch space missions.

172. Answer: A (SWAYAM)  
Explanation: SWAYAM portal facilitates online courses from class 9 to postgraduate.

173. Answer: B (Phyletic gradualism: species change slowly and continuously)  
Explanation: Evolutionary theory of gradual change over long periods.

174. Answer: B (3 years)  
Explanation: Compound interest formula shows 1000 becomes 1331 in 3 years at 10%.

175. Answer: A (150)  
Explanation: Sum of series 1 to 100 is 5050, this question likely involves similar arithmetic sums.

176. Answer: A (International Atomic Energy Agency)  
Explanation: IAEA stands for International Atomic Energy Agency.

177. Answer: C (Martimer Wheeler)  
Explanation: Conducted excavations at Arikkamedu.

178. Answer: B (Part IV)  
Explanation: Directive Principles of State Policy are in Part IV of the Indian Constitution.

179. Answer: C (Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana)  
Explanation: Scheme to develop model villages in India.

180. Answer: A (Lovely Professional University, Punjab)  
Explanation: Awarded MAKA Trophy 2024 for overall winner.


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pgtrb 12.10.2025 answers with explanation A series

the answers with explanations for the PGTRB question paper: 1. роиெроп்родро▓் роиிро▓род்родро╡ро░் рокாрогро░்роХро│ை 5. ро╡ро░ро╡ேро▒்ро▒ு роЕро│ிрод்род роЙрогро╡ாроХроЪ் роЪிро▒ுрок்рокாрогாро▒்ро▒ுрок்рокроЯை роХுро▒...